Any input appreciated!
I've run two portfolios. General input: 40 year time horizon, customized risk/return statistics, sequence of returns first 10 years worst years . First portfolio, no income in a 40 year time period. Second portfolio, income based on life expectancy starting year 1.
Regarding Loss probabilities:
For a given return range (say >=2.5%), why would the probability of a loss be greater for a portfolio in which you were NOT taking income be HIGHER than for a portfolio in which you WERE taking the income.
Am I "mixing my metaphors", not comparing apples to apples???
Thank you!
Yes, sounds complicated. Have you thought about diversifying further? Like with property crowdfunding, for example. You can invest in much more than just 2 assets for small amounts of money.